N
Neil
I was reading on the Microsoft web site that to use the Rich Text property
in Access 2007, that you needed to set the table field's TextFormat property
to RichText, in addition to setting the text box's property as well. Where
does that leave SQL Server users?
If one uses SQL Server as a back end, one cannot set the TextFormat property
(since it doesn't exist). Would setting the property (if it even exists) in
the ODBC link to the SQL Server table suffice to be able to use the property
with a SQL Server back end? Or is using the new RichText property with a SQL
Server back end out of the question?
Thanks!
Neil
in Access 2007, that you needed to set the table field's TextFormat property
to RichText, in addition to setting the text box's property as well. Where
does that leave SQL Server users?
If one uses SQL Server as a back end, one cannot set the TextFormat property
(since it doesn't exist). Would setting the property (if it even exists) in
the ODBC link to the SQL Server table suffice to be able to use the property
with a SQL Server back end? Or is using the new RichText property with a SQL
Server back end out of the question?
Thanks!
Neil